"Obviously, one can think about the relation of labor and domination using means other than Marx's theory of value. But are those economists who amuse themselves and their readers with thequestion of why, instead of the labor theory of value, one should not use a peanut theory of value (since both are supposedly identical in analytic terms) as much concerned with the emancipation of labor as with the emancipation of peanuts? Or have they not yet thought enough?"
